I gather this has just been published. One of my tests for new translations is inclusivity, so I go through various passeges to see how they do. This one was doing well; lot's of 'Anyone who ...', pluralizations etc but look what happens in Jn6.44 "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him, and I will raise him up on the last day." or at v.54 "Anyone who eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day".
All of a sudden, non-gender specific becomes masculine. What word should they have used? 'them' would work; it's quite common and even goes back to Shakespeare in use as an indeterminate pronoun . Or you could go down the NRSV route of pluralising. ["Those who ... raise them up..."].
And just in case you think it's a glitch look at 2Cor 5.10 "... so that each may be repaid for what he has done in the body..." So all you women readers, fear not the judgment, ye shall see your menfolk repaid but ye yourselves shall be saved, for judgement applieth only unto them of male gender.
Ah well, at least I can still use the NRSV with integrity.
Nous like scouse or French -oui? We wee whee all the way ... to mind us a bunch of thunks. Too much information? How could that be?
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